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NCERT Based History MCQ, Class-9th
NCERT Based Science MCQ, Class-9th
NCERT Based MCQ with Explanation:
1. What does Ralph Waldo Emerson consider the true wealth of a nation?
(a) Vast natural resources
(b) Dedicated and enduring people
(c) Advanced technological systems
(d) Extensive military power
Explanation: Emerson highlights that individuals who toil for truth and honor are a nation’s true wealth, shaping policies and utilizing resources effectively, surpassing the value of material assets like technology or military power.
2. What percentage of the world’s population lives in about 10% of its land area?
(a) 80%
(b) 70%
(c) 90%
(d) 60%
Explanation: Approximately 90% of the global population resides in 10% of the Earth’s land, concentrated in fertile regions like river valleys due to water availability and arable land supporting dense settlements.
3. How many Asian countries are among the world’s top 10 most populous?
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 7
Explanation: Six Asian countries rank among the top 10 most populous globally, driven by fertile lands and historical settlement patterns in areas like the Ganga plains, supporting large populations.
4. How is population density calculated for a region?
(a) Population multiplied by area
(b) Area divided by population
(c) Population divided by resources
(d) Population divided by area
Explanation: Population density is calculated as the number of people per square kilometer, indicating land capacity to support inhabitants, as exemplified by Region X’s 1,500 persons per sq km.
5. Which geographical factor primarily drives dense populations in river valleys?
(a) Availability of minerals
(b) Access to fresh water
(c) Extreme climatic conditions
(d) Urban infrastructure presence
Explanation: Fresh water supports agriculture, drinking, and navigation, attracting dense populations to river valleys like the Ganga plains, fostering intensive farming and large community settlements.
6. Why are mountainous regions like the Himalayas sparsely populated?
(a) Lack of fertile soils
(b) Abundance of water resources
(c) Favorable transport networks
(d) Pleasant climatic conditions
Explanation: The Himalayas’ infertile soils and rugged terrain limit agriculture and accessibility, resulting in sparse populations compared to fertile plains supporting dense settlements.
7. Which climate type attracts populations due to minimal seasonal variation?
(a) Tropical rainforest climate
(b) Polar climate
(c) Mediterranean climate
(d) Desert climate
Explanation: Mediterranean climates, with mild conditions, attract populations by supporting comfortable living and early settlements, unlike extreme climates like deserts or polar regions.
8. What role do fertile soils play in population distribution?
(a) Enhance urban development
(b) Support intensive agriculture
(c) Facilitate mineral extraction
(d) Improve climatic stability
Explanation: Fertile loamy soils enable intensive agriculture, attracting dense populations by supporting food production, as seen in the Ganga plains sustaining large communities.
9. Which economic factor significantly increases population density?
(a) Scarcity of job opportunities
(b) Presence of mineral deposits
(c) Limited educational facilities
(d) Poor transport networks
Explanation: Mineral deposits attract industries, creating jobs and drawing workers, leading to high population density in areas like the Katanga Zambia copper belt.
10. Why do cities grow due to urbanization?
(a) Better employment and civic amenities
(b) Increased social unrest
(c) Decline in living conditions
(d) Lack of educational facilities
Explanation: Cities offer superior jobs, education, and transport, attracting rural migrants, leading to urban growth, as seen in megacities, despite challenges like congestion.
NCERT Based Science MCQ, Class-10th11. Which region is densely populated due to industrial activities?
(a) Himalayan foothills
(b) Kobe-Osaka region
(c) Sahara Desert
(d) Amazon rainforest
Explanation: The Kobe-Osaka region’s industrial belts provide jobs, attracting workers and fostering high population density through economic opportunities and urban infrastructure.
12. What social factor attracts populations to certain areas?
(a) Political instability
(b) Religious or cultural significance
(c) Lack of civic amenities
(d) Economic backwardness
Explanation: Religious or cultural significance draws people to pilgrimage sites, fostering dense populations due to spiritual importance, influencing settlement patterns significantly.
13. What does population growth measure in a region?
(a) Change in land area
(b) Change in number of inhabitants
(c) Increase in resources
(d) Growth in industrial output
Explanation: Population growth tracks changes in the number of people, reflecting economic development, social progress, and cultural factors, expressed in numbers or percentages.
14. How is population growth in India from 2001 to 2011 calculated?
(a) Add 2001 and 2011 populations
(b) Subtract 2001 population from 2011
(c) Multiply 2001 population by 2011
(d) Divide 2011 population by 2001
Explanation: Growth is calculated by subtracting 2001 population (102.70 crore) from 2011 (121.02 crore), yielding 18.15 crore, reflecting absolute increase from births and migration.
15. What is the formula for natural population growth?
(a) Births + Deaths
(b) Births – Deaths
(c) Births × Deaths
(d) Births ÷ Deaths
Explanation: Natural growth is the difference between births and deaths, indicating organic population change, excluding migration, and reflecting fertility and mortality trends.
16. What defines actual population growth in a region?
(a) Births – Deaths only
(b) Births + In Migration
(c) Births – Deaths + In Migration – Out Migration
(d) Deaths + Out Migration
Explanation: Actual growth includes natural increase (births minus deaths) plus net migration, providing a comprehensive measure of population change driven by biological and mobility factors.
17. When does negative population growth occur?
(a) Birth rate exceeds death rate
(b) Death rate exceeds birth rate
(c) In-migration equals out-migration
(d) Birth rate equals death rate
Explanation: Negative growth occurs when deaths outnumber births or out-migration exceeds in-migration, reducing population, often in regions with aging populations or economic challenges.
18. How is Crude Birth Rate (CBR) calculated?
(a) Live births ÷ Population × 1000
(b) Deaths ÷ Population × 1000
(c) Live births × Population ÷ 1000
(d) Live births – Deaths × 1000
Explanation: CBR measures live births per thousand of the mid-year population, providing a standardized fertility metric to analyze population growth trends across regions.
19. What factor significantly affects mortality rates?
(a) Availability of minerals
(b) Social and economic development
(c) Presence of fertile soils
(d) Extreme climate variations
Explanation: Social and economic advancements, like improved healthcare, reduce mortality rates, boosting population growth by enhancing living conditions and medical access.
20. What is migration in the context of population change?
(a) Change in birth rates
(b) Movement of people between places
(c) Increase in death rates
(d) Expansion of urban areas
Explanation: Migration involves people relocating, altering population sizes, driven by economic, social, or environmental factors, impacting both origin and destination demographics.
21. What term describes migrants moving into a new place?
(a) Emigrants
(b) Immigrants
(c) Nomads
(d) Residents
22. Which factor is a common push factor for migration?
(a) Better job opportunities
(b) Political turmoil
(c) Improved living conditions
(d) Pleasant climate
23. What is a pull factor influencing migration to a destination?
(a) Unemployment
(b) Natural disasters
(c) Better educational facilities
(d) Social unrest
24. How much has the human population increased in the past 500 years?
(a) Five times
(b) More than ten times
(c) Three times
(d) Eight times
25. In which century did the population increase fourfold?
(a) 19th century
(b) 20th century
(c) 18th century
(d) 21st century
26. What does the Demographic Transition Theory predict about population?
(a) Constant high births and deaths
(b) Shift from high to low births and deaths
(c) Uniform population growth
(d) Decline in migration rates
27. What characterizes the first stage of Demographic Transition?
(a) Low fertility and mortality
(b) High fertility and high mortality
(c) Stable population growth
(d) High migration rates
28. Why does population growth accelerate in the second stage of Demographic Transition?
(a) Increased mortality rates
(b) Declining fertility rates
(c) Reduced mortality with high fertility
(d) Balanced birth and death rates
29. What is typical of the third stage of Demographic Transition?
(a) High fertility and mortality
(b) Low fertility and low mortality
(c) High fertility with low mortality
(d) Low fertility with high mortality
30. Which country is an example of the third stage of Demographic Transition?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Kenya
(c) Canada
(d) Peru
31. What is a key measure for controlling population growth?
(a) Restricting urban migration
(b) Access to family planning services
(c) Promoting large families
(d) Reducing educational facilities
32. According to Thomas Malthus, what happens if population outpaces food supply?
(a) Economic prosperity increases
(b) Population crash due to famine
(c) Migration rates decline
(d) Urbanization accelerates
33. Which continent has the highest population growth rate?
(a) Africa
(b) Asia
(c) South America
(d) North America
34. Which area is not typically sparsely populated?
(a) The Atacama Desert
(b) South-east Asia
(c) Equatorial regions
(d) Polar regions
35. Which is not a push factor for migration?
(a) Water shortage
(b) Unemployment
(c) Medical facilities
(d) Epidemics
36. Which statement about population growth over 500 years is accurate?
(a) Population remained stable
(b) Increased more than ten times
(c) Doubled in size
(d) Grew by five times
37. What characterizes population distribution as per George B. Cressey’s remark?
(a) Uniform across continents
(b) Many places with few, few with many
(c) Concentrated in urban areas
(d) Evenly spread in rural regions
38. If a region has 300,000 people and 150 sq km, what is its population density?
(a) 1,000 persons/sq km
(b) 2,000 persons/sq km
(c) 1,500 persons/sq km
(d) 3,000 persons/sq km
39. Why are flat plains preferred for human settlement?
(a) They hinder agriculture
(b) They favor crop production
(c) They lack water resources
(d) They have extreme climates
40. Which factor makes deserts less populated?
(a) Comfortable climate
(b) Extreme temperature variations
(c) Fertile soil availability
(d) Abundant water resources
41. Which area in India is thinly populated due to poor soils?
(a) Ganga plains
(b) Deccan Plateau
(c) Coastal regions
(d) Punjab plains
42. What economic activity attracts populations to industrial belts?
(a) Agricultural expansion
(b) Job opportunities in factories
(c) Limited civic amenities
(d) Rural lifestyle preferences
43. What is a consequence of rural to urban migration?
(a) Decline in city populations
(b) Growth in city sizes
(c) Reduced industrial activities
(d) Increased rural density
44. What cultural factor influences population concentration?
(a) Economic instability
(b) Religious significance
(c) Political unrest
(d) Lack of resources
45. What indicates positive population growth in a region?
(a) Death rate exceeds birth rate
(b) Birth rate exceeds death rate
(c) Equal birth and death rates
(d) High out-migration rates
46. How is Crude Death Rate (CDR) calculated?
(a) Deaths ÷ Population × 1000
(b) Births ÷ Population × 1000
(c) Deaths × Population ÷ 1000
(d) Births – Deaths × 1000
47. What type of migration involves movement from rural to urban areas?
(a) Urban to urban
(b) Rural to rural
(c) Rural to urban
(d) Urban to rural
48. Who are considered emigrants in migration studies?
(a) People moving into a place
(b) People moving out of a place
(c) Permanent residents
(d) Temporary visitors
49. What is a common reason for people to migrate?
(a) Stable economic conditions
(b) Better economic and social life
(c) Uniform climate conditions
(d) Lack of cultural significance
50. Which factor is not a pull factor for migration?
(a) Pleasant climate
(b) Natural disasters
(c) Better living conditions
(d) Security of life
NCERT Based Geography MCQ, Class-11th51. In which stage of Demographic Transition is population growth slowest?
(a) First stage
(b) Second stage
(c) Third stage
(d) Intermediate stage
52. What improvement reduces mortality in the second stage of Demographic Transition?
(a) Increased epidemics
(b) Improved sanitation and health
(c) Higher fertility rates
(d) Reduced food supply
53. What is a characteristic of populations in the third stage of Demographic Transition?
(a) High illiteracy rates
(b) Urbanized and literate societies
(c) Large agrarian families
(d) Low technical know-how
54. Which country exemplifies the second stage of Demographic Transition?
(a) Japan
(b) Canada
(c) Kenya
(d) USA
55. What is a tax disincentive used for in population control?
(a) Encouraging large families
(b) Discouraging large families
(c) Promoting urban migration
(d) Reducing educational access
56. What did Malthus suggest to prevent population crashes?
(a) Increased food production
(b) Preventive checks
(c) Higher birth rates
(d) Expanded migration
57. Which factor does not directly influence population density?
(a) Water availability
(b) Fertile soils
(c) Mineral deposits
(d) Political boundaries
58. Why are the Ganga plains densely populated?
(a) Rugged terrain
(b) Fertile loamy soils
(c) Extreme climate
(d) Limited water resources
59. What attracts industries to mineral-rich areas?
(a) Poor transport networks
(b) Job creation potential
(c) Harsh climatic conditions
(d) Lack of skilled workers
60. What is a challenge of urban life despite population growth?
(a) Improved living standards
(b) Overcrowding and congestion
(c) Abundant rural resources
(d) Enhanced job security
61. Which factor encourages settlement in sparsely populated areas?
(a) Social unrest
(b) Government incentives
(c) Lack of resources
(d) Political instability
62. What does population change indicate about a region’s development?
(a) Geological stability
(b) Economic and social progress
(c) Climatic variations
(d) Agricultural output
63. How is population growth expressed in absolute terms?
(a) As a percentage
(b) As a difference in numbers
(c) As a ratio
(d) As a migration rate
64. What happens when birth and death rates are equal?
(a) Rapid population growth
(b) Negative population growth
(c) Stable population
(d) High migration rates
65. Which component is not part of population change?
(a) Births
(b) Deaths
(c) Migration
(d) Climate
66. What type of migration occurs between two cities?
(a) Rural to urban
(b) Urban to urban
(c) Rural to rural
(d) Urban to rural
67. Who is both an immigrant and an emigrant?
(a) A permanent resident
(b) A temporary visitor
(c) The same person moving
(d) A non-migrating individual
68. What is a common push factor for migration in rural areas?
(a) Better job opportunities
(b) Poor living conditions
(c) Advanced healthcare
(d) Pleasant climate
69. Which pull factor attracts migrants to urban areas?
(a) Political turmoil
(b) Peace and stability
(c) Natural disasters
(d) Economic backwardness
70. How many times did the population increase in the 20th century?
(a) Two times
(b) Four times
(c) Six times
(d) Eight times
71. What societal shift does Demographic Transition Theory describe?
(a) Rural to agrarian
(b) Urban to rural
(c) Agrarian to industrial
(d) Industrial to agrarian
72. What is a feature of the first stage of Demographic Transition?
(a) High life expectancy
(b) Large agrarian families
(c) Advanced technology
(d) Urbanized populations
73. Why does mortality decline in the second stage of Demographic Transition?
(a) Increased epidemics
(b) Improved health conditions
(c) Higher fertility rates
(d) Reduced food supply
74. What controls family size in the third stage of Demographic Transition?
(a) High mortality rates
(b) Deliberate societal choices
(c) Limited resources
(d) Agrarian lifestyles
75. Which country is in the first stage of Demographic Transition?
(a) Japan
(b) USA
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Rainforest tribes
NCERT Biology 12th MCQ for HTET, CTET76. What promotes population control alongside family planning?
(a) Increased birth rates
(b) Free contraceptives
(c) Large family incentives
(d) Reduced healthcare access
77. What did Malthus predict about unchecked population growth?
(a) Economic surplus
(b) Population crash due to famine
(c) Stable demographic balance
(d) Increased migration rates
78. Which area’s population density benefits from fertile soils?
(a) Himalayan mountains
(b) Ganga plains
(c) Sahara Desert
(d) Polar regions
79. Why do mineral-rich areas like Katanga Zambia have high population density?
(a) Lack of job opportunities
(b) Attraction of industrial activities
(c) Extreme climatic conditions
(d) Poor soil fertility
80. What is a drawback of city life despite urban population growth?
(a) Improved living standards
(b) Taxing living conditions
(c) Abundant rural resources
(d) Enhanced job security
81. Which social factor can lead to sparse populations?
(a) Cultural significance
(b) Political unrest
(c) Government incentives
(d) Religious importance
82. What does population growth indicate about a region’s history?
(a) Geological formations
(b) Cultural and historical background
(c) Climatic stability
(d) Agricultural output
83. How is population growth rate useful in demographic studies?
(a) Measures land area changes
(b) Indicates percentage change
(c) Tracks resource availability
(d) Monitors climate shifts
84. What is a component of actual population growth?
(a) Climate conditions
(b) Net migration
(c) Soil fertility
(d) Industrial output
85. Why are Mediterranean regions historically populated?
(a) Extreme climates
(b) Pleasant climate
(c) Poor soils
(d) Limited water
86. Which factor does not directly influence population distribution?
(a) Water availability
(b) Landform suitability
(c) Political policies
(d) Soil fertility
87. What attracts skilled workers to mineral-rich areas?
(a) Poor living conditions
(b) Industrial job opportunities
(c) Harsh climates
(d) Limited transport
88. What is a social consequence of urban migration?
(a) Reduced city sizes
(b) Increased urban density
(c) Stable rural populations
(d) Decreased job opportunities
89. Which area is sparsely populated due to poor soils?
(a) Ganga plains
(b) Deccan Plateau
(c) Coastal plains
(d) Punjab plains
90. What is a key feature of the third stage of Demographic Transition?
(a) High fertility rates
(b) Low life expectancy
(c) Controlled family sizes
(d) Agrarian dominance
91. Which country is in the second stage of Demographic Transition?
(a) USA
(b) Japan
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Canada
92. What promotes sustainable population growth?
(a) Large family incentives
(b) Family planning access
(c) Increased mortality
(d) Reduced education
93. What did Malthus advocate to avoid population crashes?
(a) Higher birth rates
(b) Preventive checks
(c) Increased migration
(d) Reduced food supply
94. Which area has high population density due to water availability?
(a) Sahara Desert
(b) Ganga plains
(c) Polar regions
(d) Himalayan mountains
95. Why are industrial belts densely populated?
(a) Lack of jobs
(b) Job opportunities in factories
(c) Poor infrastructure
(d) Extreme climates
96. What is a social factor reducing population in some areas?
(a) Cultural significance
(b) Political unrest
(c) Religious attractions
(d) Government incentives
97. What does population growth indicate about economic development?
(a) Stable landforms
(b) Economic progress
(c) Climatic conditions
(d) Resource scarcity
98. How is natural population growth calculated?
(a) Births + Deaths
(b) Births – Deaths
(c) Births × Deaths
(d) Births ÷ Deaths
99. What happens when out-migration exceeds in-migration?
(a) Positive population growth
(b) Stable population
(c) Negative population growth
(d) Increased birth rates
100. What does Crude Death Rate (CDR) measure?
(a) Births per thousand
(b) Deaths per thousand
(c) Migration per thousand
(d) Fertility per hundred